Oral Surgery

1. Indications for Third Molar Extraction
Which of the following is an indication for third molar extraction?
A: Tooth color
B: Asymptomatic fully erupted third molar with proper occlusion
C: Pericoronitis and recurrent infection
D: Minor malocclusion
Answer: C: Pericoronitis and recurrent infection

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2. Post-Extraction Complications
What is the most common complication following a tooth extraction?
A: Anaphylaxis
B: Dry socket (alveolar osteitis)
C: Oral cancer
D: Malocclusion
Answer: B: Dry socket (alveolar osteitis)

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3. Management of Oral Cancer
What is the primary treatment modality for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A: Antibiotics
B: Surgical excision
C: Fluoride treatment
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Surgical excision

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4. Inferior Alveolar Nerve Injury
What is a common cause of inferior alveolar nerve injury during oral surgery?
A: Scaling and root planing
B: Third molar extraction
C: Simple prophylaxis
D: Application of sealants
Answer: B: Third molar extraction

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5. Indications for Biopsy in Oral Lesions
Which oral lesion warrants a biopsy?
A: Chronic non-healing ulcer
B: Minor enamel hypoplasia
C: Gingivitis
D: Dentinal caries
Answer: A: Chronic non-healing ulcer

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6. Treatment of Mandibular Fractures
What is the most common treatment for a non-displaced mandibular fracture?
A: No treatment necessary
B: Rigid fixation with plates and screws
C: Orthodontic treatment
D: Fluoride application
Answer: B: Rigid fixation with plates and screws

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7. Management of Oral Cysts
What is the preferred treatment for a dentigerous cyst?
A: Observation
B: Enucleation and extraction of the associated tooth
C: Scaling and root planing
D: Application of sealants
Answer: B: Enucleation and extraction of the associated tooth

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8. Use of Antibiotics in Oral Surgery
When are antibiotics typically prescribed following oral surgery?
A: Always
B: For routine extractions
C: For patients with a high risk of infection or existing infection
D: For patients with good oral hygiene
Answer: C: For patients with a high risk of infection or existing infection

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9. Indications for Orthognathic Surgery
What is a common indication for orthognathic surgery?
A: Mild crowding
B: Severe skeletal malocclusions
C: Minor tooth discoloration
D: Gingivitis
Answer: B: Severe skeletal malocclusions

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10. Management of Impacted Canines
What is the typical treatment approach for impacted maxillary canines?
A: Extraction of adjacent teeth
B: Surgical exposure and orthodontic traction
C: Observation
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Surgical exposure and orthodontic traction

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11. Complications of Mandibular Third Molar Extractions
What is a potential complication of mandibular third molar extractions?
A: Hyperdontia
B: Inferior alveolar nerve damage
C: Increase in enamel thickness
D: Formation of tori
Answer: B: Inferior alveolar nerve damage

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12. Management of Osteoradionecrosis
What is a primary preventive measure for osteoradionecrosis in patients undergoing radiation therapy?
A: Delay dental treatment until after radiation
B: Pre-radiation dental assessment and removal of non-restorable teeth
C: Increase fluoride application
D: Avoid brushing teeth
Answer: B: Pre-radiation dental assessment and removal of non-restorable teeth

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13. Indications for Maxillofacial Surgery
Which condition is an indication for maxillofacial surgery?
A: Minor occlusal adjustment
B: Mandibular fracture
C: Gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Mandibular fracture

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14. Management of Oral Trauma
What is the first step in managing a patient with an avulsed tooth?
A: Immediate reimplantation if the tooth is intact and the patient is seen within one hour
B: Discard the tooth
C: Perform root canal therapy
D: Apply fluoride varnish
Answer: A: Immediate reimplantation if the tooth is intact and the patient is seen within one hour

‍

15. Management of Temporomandibular Joint Disorders
Which is a conservative treatment option for temporomandibular joint disorders (TMD)?
A: Immediate surgery
B: Physical therapy and occlusal splints
C: Extraction of all molars
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Physical therapy and occlusal splints

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16. Indications for Tooth Extraction
What is a common indication for tooth extraction?
A: Minor enamel discoloration
B: Non-restorable carious lesions
C: Gingivitis
D: Mild crowding
Answer: B: Non-restorable carious lesions

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17. Management of Cleft Lip and Palate
When is the optimal time for surgical repair of a cleft palate?
A: At birth
B: Between 9 to 18 months
C: During teenage years
D: Adulthood
Answer: B: Between 9 to 18 months

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18. Treatment of Alveolar Osteitis
What is the typical treatment for alveolar osteitis (dry socket)?
A: Immediate re-extraction of the socket
B: Placement of a medicated dressing in the socket
C: Antibiotic therapy
D: Ignore the condition
Answer: B: Placement of a medicated dressing in the socket

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19. Orthognathic Surgery for Class III Malocclusion
What is a typical procedure used in orthognathic surgery for Class III malocclusion?
A: Le Fort I osteotomy
B: Gingivectomy
C: Simple extraction
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: A: Le Fort I osteotomy

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20. Diagnosis of Ameloblastoma
What is the preferred diagnostic method for detecting an ameloblastoma?
A: Clinical examination alone
B: Radiographic imaging and biopsy
C: Tooth color assessment
D: Salivary flow test
Answer: B: Radiographic imaging and biopsy

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21. Indications for Apicoectomy
What is a common indication for an apicoectomy?
A: Intact tooth with no symptoms
B: Persistent periapical pathology despite root canal treatment
C: Routine dental cleaning
D: Orthodontic treatment
Answer: B: Persistent periapical pathology despite root canal treatment

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22. Management of Temporomandibular Joint Ankylosis
What is a typical treatment for temporomandibular joint ankylosis?
A: Observation
B: Surgical intervention to release the joint
C: Tooth extraction
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical intervention to release the joint

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23. Postoperative Instructions Following Tooth Extraction
What is a key postoperative instruction following a tooth extraction?
A: Avoid rinsing the mouth for 24 hours
B: Brush the extraction site vigorously
C: Eat hard foods immediately
D: Ignore any bleeding
Answer: A: Avoid rinsing the mouth for 24 hours

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24. Complications of Maxillary Sinus Perforation
What is a potential complication of maxillary sinus perforation during tooth extraction?
A: Increased tooth sensitivity
B: Oroantral fistula
C: Enamel hypoplasia
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Oroantral fistula

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25. Indications for Frenectomy
What is a common indication for performing a frenectomy?
A: Minor enamel hypoplasia
B: Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie) affecting speech or feeding
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Dental caries
Answer: B: Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie) affecting speech or feeding

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26. Management of Odontogenic Infections
What is a key principle in managing odontogenic infections?
A: Ignore the infection
B: Prompt surgical drainage and appropriate antibiotic therapy
C: Only prescribe painkillers
D: Increase fluoride application
Answer: B: Prompt surgical drainage and appropriate antibiotic therapy

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27. Oral Surgery Considerations in Patients with Hemophilia
What special consideration is required for oral surgery in patients with hemophilia?
A: No special consideration needed
B: Preoperative and postoperative management with clotting factor replacement
C: Avoid all dental extractions
D: Only perform minor oral surgery
Answer: B: Preoperative and postoperative management with clotting factor replacement

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28. Indications for Submandibular Gland Excision
Which condition might indicate the need for submandibular gland excision?
A: Chronic sialadenitis
B: Minor enamel hypoplasia
C: Gingivitis
D: Dental caries
Answer: A: Chronic sialadenitis

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29. Management of Trismus
What is a common conservative treatment for trismus?
A: Immediate surgery
B: Warm compresses and jaw exercises
C: Tooth extraction
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Warm compresses and jaw exercises

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30. Indications for Removal of Torus Palatinus
When is removal of a torus palatinus indicated?
A: Asymptomatic and does not interfere with oral function
B: Interferes with the fit of dentures or becomes ulcerated
C: Minor tooth discoloration
D: Mild gingivitis
Answer: B: Interferes with the fit of dentures or becomes ulcerated

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31. Postoperative Bleeding Management
What is the first step in managing postoperative bleeding following an extraction?
A: Apply fluoride varnish
B: Have the patient bite on a gauze pad with firm pressure
C: Extract another tooth
D: Ignore the bleeding
Answer: B: Have the patient bite on a gauze pad with firm pressure

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32. Management of Facial Cellulitis
What is the immediate management for a patient presenting with facial cellulitis due to a dental abscess?
A: Prescribe antibiotics and monitor
B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignore the infection
Answer: B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy

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33. Use of Cone Beam CT in Oral Surgery
How does cone beam computed tomography (CBCT) assist in oral surgery planning?
A: It is used only for soft tissue analysis
B: Provides detailed 3D images of bone structures and pathology
C: Measures salivary flow
D: Assesses tooth color
Answer: B: Provides detailed 3D images of bone structures and pathology

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34. Management of Zygomatic Fractures
What is the common treatment for a non-displaced zygomatic fracture?
A: Observation and soft diet
B: Rigid fixation with plates and screws
C: Extraction of adjacent teeth
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: A: Observation and soft diet

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35. Oral Surgery in Diabetic Patients
What special consideration is required for oral surgery in diabetic patients?
A: No special consideration needed
B: Monitor blood glucose levels and manage perioperative insulin
C: Only perform minor oral surgery
D: Avoid all dental procedures
Answer: B: Monitor blood glucose levels and manage perioperative insulin

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36. Management of Infected Dental Implants
What is the first step in managing an infected dental implant?
A: Immediate removal of the implant
B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignore the infection
Answer: B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy

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37. Complications of Mandibular Fracture Repair
What is a potential complication of mandibular fracture repair?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
C: Increase in tooth size
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury

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38. Management of Oroantral Communication
What is the immediate management of an oroantral communication following a tooth extraction?
A: Observation
B: Surgical closure and sinus precautions
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Ignore the condition
Answer: B: Surgical closure and sinus precautions

‍

39. Indications for Alveoloplasty
What is a common indication for alveoloplasty?
A: Minor tooth discoloration
B: Smoothing and reshaping the alveolar ridge for better denture fit
C: Routine dental cleaning
D: Orthodontic treatment
Answer: B: Smoothing and reshaping the alveolar ridge for better denture fit

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40. Postoperative Care Following Biopsy
What is a key component of postoperative care following an oral biopsy?
A: Immediate vigorous brushing
B: Gentle oral hygiene and avoiding trauma to the biopsy site
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignoring the biopsy site
Answer: B: Gentle oral hygiene and avoiding trauma to the biopsy site

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41. Management of Oral Lichen Planus
What is a common treatment for symptomatic oral lichen planus?
A: Antibiotics
B: Topical corticosteroids
C: Routine prophylaxis
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Topical corticosteroids

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42. Management of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is the typical treatment for an odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Observation
B: Enucleation and curettage
C: Tooth whitening
D: Scaling and root planing
Answer: B: Enucleation and curettage

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43 Oral Surgery Considerations in Pregnant Patients
What special consideration is required for oral surgery in pregnant patients?
A: Avoid all dental treatments
B: Minimize radiographic exposure and avoid elective procedures during the first trimester
C: Perform all dental treatments as usual
D: Increase fluoride application
Answer: B: Minimize radiographic exposure and avoid elective procedures during the first trimester

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44. Management of Ludwig’s Angina
What is the immediate treatment for Ludwig’s angina?
A: Observation
B: Airway management, surgical drainage, and antibiotics
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Airway management, surgical drainage, and antibiotics

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45. Indications for Incisional Biopsy
When is an incisional biopsy indicated for an oral lesion?
A: Small, benign-appearing lesion
B: Large, suspicious lesion with undefined borders
C: Tooth discoloration
D: Mild gingivitis
Answer: B: Large, suspicious lesion with undefined borders‍

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46. Management of Trigeminal Neuralgia
What is a common treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
A: Tooth extraction
B: Anticonvulsant medication such as carbamazepine
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Routine dental cleaning
Answer: B: Anticonvulsant medication such as carbamazepine

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47. Use of Guided Tissue Regeneration in Oral Surgery
How is guided tissue regeneration (GTR) used in oral surgery?
A: To change tooth color
B: To promote bone and periodontal ligament regeneration
C: To treat dental caries
D: To increase salivary flow
Answer: B: To promote bone and periodontal ligament regeneration

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48. Management of Maxillary Third Molar Extraction
What is a potential complication of maxillary third molar extraction?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Oroantral communication
C: Increase in enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Oroantral communication

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49. Indications for Surgical Extraction
What is a common indication for a surgical extraction?
A: Tooth with uncomplicated caries
B: Impacted tooth with insufficient space to erupt
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Impacted tooth with insufficient space to erupt

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50. Management of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is a typical treatment for fibrous dysplasia affecting the jaw?
A: Observation and monitoring
B: Surgical recontouring for functional or aesthetic reasons
C: Tooth extraction
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Surgical recontouring for functional or aesthetic reasons

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51. Indications for Surgical Drainage of Abscesses
What is a common indication for the surgical drainage of a dental abscess?
A: Small, non-fluctuant swelling
B: Large, fluctuant swelling with systemic involvement
C: Mild tooth discoloration
D: Routine dental cleaning
Answer: B: Large, fluctuant swelling with systemic involvement

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52. Complications of Dental Implant Placement
What is a potential complication of dental implant placement?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Peri-implantitis
C: Increase in enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Peri-implantitis

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53. Management of Oral Verrucous Carcinoma
What is the primary treatment for oral verrucous carcinoma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Surgical excision

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54. Indications for Maxillary Sinus Lift
What is a common indication for performing a maxillary sinus lift?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Insufficient bone height in the posterior maxilla for implant placement
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Insufficient bone height in the posterior maxilla for implant placement

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55. Management of Oral Mucocele
What is the typical treatment for an oral mucocele?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Scaling and root planing
Answer: B: Surgical excision

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56. Complications of Orthognathic Surgery
What is a potential complication of orthognathic surgery?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Nerve injury resulting in altered sensation
C: Increase in enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Nerve injury resulting in altered sensation

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57. Indications for Corticotomy
What is a common indication for performing a corticotomy in orthodontic treatment?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Accelerate tooth movement in cases of severe malocclusion
C: Routine dental cleaning
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Accelerate tooth movement in cases of severe malocclusion

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58. Management of Oral Squamous Papilloma
What is the typical treatment for oral squamous papilloma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Scaling and root planing
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

59. Postoperative Instructions for Patients Following Oral Surgery
Which is an essential postoperative instruction for patients following oral surgery?
A: Avoid smoking and vigorous rinsing for at least 24 hours
B: Brush the surgical site vigorously
C: Eat hard and crunchy foods immediately
D: Ignore any swelling or bleeding
Answer: A: Avoid smoking and vigorous rinsing for at least 24 hours

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60. Management of Chronic Sialadenitis
What is the preferred treatment for chronic sialadenitis of the submandibular gland?
A: Observation
B: Submandibular gland excision
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Routine dental cleaning
Answer: B: Submandibular gland excision

‍

61. Indications for Frenectomy
What is a common indication for performing a frenectomy?
A: Minor enamel hypoplasia
B: Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie) affecting speech or feeding
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Dental caries
Answer: B: Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie) affecting speech or feeding

‍

62. Management of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is the typical treatment for an odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Observation
B: Enucleation and curettage
C: Tooth whitening
D: Scaling and root planing
Answer: B: Enucleation and curettage

‍

63. Management of Trismus
What is a common conservative treatment for trismus?
A: Immediate surgery
B: Warm compresses and jaw exercises
C: Tooth extraction
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Warm compresses and jaw exercises

‍

64. Management of Oral Verrucous Carcinoma
What is the primary treatment for oral verrucous carcinoma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

65. Management of Facial Cellulitis
What is the immediate management for a patient presenting with facial cellulitis due to a dental abscess?
A: Prescribe antibiotics and monitor
B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignore the infection
Answer: B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy

‍

66. Complications of Dental Implant Placement
What is a potential complication of dental implant placement?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Peri-implantitis
C: Increase in enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Peri-implantitis

‍

67. Management of Oral Mucocele
What is the typical treatment for an oral mucocele?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Scaling and root planing
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

68. Indications for Surgical Extraction
What is a common indication for a surgical extraction?
A: Tooth with uncomplicated caries
B: Impacted tooth with insufficient space to erupt
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Impacted tooth with insufficient space to erupt

‍

69. Complications of Mandibular Fracture Repair
What is a potential complication of mandibular fracture repair?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
C: Increase in tooth size
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury

‍

70. Management of Osteoradionecrosis
What is a primary preventive measure for osteoradionecrosis in patients undergoing radiation therapy?
A: Delay dental treatment until after radiation
B: Pre-radiation dental assessment and removal of non-restorable teeth
C: Increase fluoride application
D: Avoid brushing teeth
Answer: B: Pre-radiation dental assessment and removal of non-restorable teeth

‍

71. Management of Ludwig’s Angina
What is the immediate treatment for Ludwig’s angina?
A: Observation
B: Airway management, surgical drainage, and antibiotics
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Airway management, surgical drainage, and antibiotics

‍

72. Management of Infected Dental Implants
What is the first step in managing an infected dental implant?
A: Immediate removal of the implant
B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignore the infection
Answer: B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy

‍

73. Management of Oral Cancer
What is the primary treatment modality for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A: Antibiotics
B: Surgical excision
C: Fluoride treatment
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

74. Management of Oral Lichen Planus
What is a common treatment for symptomatic oral lichen planus?
A: Antibiotics
B: Topical corticosteroids
C: Routine prophylaxis
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Topical corticosteroids

‍

75. Management of Trigeminal Neuralgia
What is a common treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
A: Tooth extraction
B: Anticonvulsant medication such as carbamazepine
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Routine dental cleaning
Answer: B: Anticonvulsant medication such as carbamazepine

‍

76. Management of Maxillary Third Molar Extraction
What is a potential complication of maxillary third molar extraction?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Oroantral communication
C: Increase in enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Oroantral communication

‍

77. Management of Temporomandibular Joint Disorders
Which is a conservative treatment option for temporomandibular joint disorders (TMD)?
A: Immediate surgery
B: Physical therapy and occlusal splints
C: Extraction of all molars
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Physical therapy and occlusal splints

‍

78. Indications for Orthognathic Surgery
What is a common indication for orthognathic surgery?
A: Mild crowding
B: Severe skeletal malocclusions
C: Minor tooth discoloration
D: Gingivitis
Answer: B: Severe skeletal malocclusions

‍

79. Management of Oral Trauma
What is the first step in managing a patient with an avulsed tooth?
A: Immediate reimplantation if the tooth is intact and the patient is seen within one hour
B: Discard the tooth
C: Perform root canal therapy
D: Apply fluoride varnish
Answer: A: Immediate reimplantation if the tooth is intact and the patient is seen within one hour

‍

80. Management of Impacted Canines
What is the typical treatment approach for impacted maxillary canines?
A: Extraction of adjacent teeth
B: Surgical exposure and orthodontic traction
C: Observation
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Surgical exposure and orthodontic traction

‍

81. Complications of Maxillary Sinus Perforation
What is a potential complication of maxillary sinus perforation during tooth extraction?
A: Increased tooth sensitivity
B: Oroantral fistula
C: Enamel hypoplasia
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Oroantral fistula

‍

82. Postoperative Bleeding Management
What is the first step in managing postoperative bleeding following an extraction?
A: Apply fluoride varnish
B: Have the patient bite on a gauze pad with firm pressure
C: Extract another tooth
D: Ignore the bleeding
Answer: B: Have the patient bite on a gauze pad with firm pressure

‍

83. Indications for Biopsy in Oral Lesions
Which oral lesion warrants a biopsy?
A: Chronic non-healing ulcer
B: Minor enamel hypoplasia
C: Gingivitis
D: Dentinal caries
Answer: A: Chronic non-healing ulcer

‍

84. Complications of Orthognathic Surgery
What is a potential complication of orthognathic surgery?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Nerve injury resulting in altered sensation
C: Increase in enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Nerve injury resulting in altered sensation

‍

85. Management of Chronic Sialadenitis
What is the preferred treatment for chronic sialadenitis of the submandibular gland?
A: Observation
B: Submandibular gland excision
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Routine dental cleaning
Answer: B: Submandibular gland excision

‍

86. Management of Oral Squamous Papilloma
What is the typical treatment for oral squamous papilloma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Scaling and root planing
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

87. Management of Oroantral Communication
What is the immediate management of an oroantral communication following a tooth extraction?
A: Observation
B: Surgical closure and sinus precautions
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Ignore the condition
Answer: B: Surgical closure and sinus precautions

‍

88. Use of Antibiotics in Oral Surgery
When are antibiotics typically prescribed following oral surgery?
A: Always
B: For routine extractions
C: For patients with a high risk of infection or existing infection
D: For patients with good oral hygiene
Answer: C: For patients with a high risk of infection or existing infection

‍

89. Management of Odontogenic Infections
What is a key principle in managing odontogenic infections?
A: Ignore the infection
B: Prompt surgical drainage and appropriate antibiotic therapy
C: Only prescribe painkillers
D: Increase fluoride application
Answer: B: Prompt surgical drainage and appropriate antibiotic therapy

‍

90. Management of Alveolar Osteitis
What is the typical treatment for alveolar osteitis (dry socket)?
A: Immediate re-extraction of the socket
B: Placement of a medicated dressing in the socket
C: Antibiotic therapy
D: Ignore the condition
Answer: B: Placement of a medicated dressing in the socket

‍

91. Management of Temporomandibular Joint Ankylosis
What is a typical treatment for temporomandibular joint ankylosis?
A: Observation
B: Surgical intervention to release the joint
C: Tooth extraction
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical intervention to release the joint

‍

92. Indications for Frenectomy
What is a common indication for performing a frenectomy?
A: Minor enamel hypoplasia
B: Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie) affecting speech or feeding
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Dental caries
Answer: B: Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie) affecting speech or feeding

‍

93. Indications for Alveoloplasty
What is a common indication for alveoloplasty?
A: Minor tooth discoloration
B: Smoothing and reshaping the alveolar ridge for better denture fit
C: Routine dental cleaning
D: Orthodontic treatment
Answer: B: Smoothing and reshaping the alveolar ridge for better denture fit

‍

94. Postoperative Instructions Following Tooth Extraction
What is a key postoperative instruction following a tooth extraction?
A: Avoid rinsing the mouth for 24 hours
B: Brush the extraction site vigorously
C: Eat hard foods immediately
D: Ignore any bleeding
Answer: A: Avoid rinsing the mouth for 24 hours

‍

95. Indications for Maxillofacial Surgery
Which condition is an indication for maxillofacial surgery?
A: Minor occlusal adjustment
B: Mandibular fracture
C: Gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Mandibular fracture

‍

96. Management of Oral Cysts
What is the preferred treatment for a dentigerous cyst?
A: Observation
B: Enucleation and extraction of the associated tooth
C: Scaling and root planing
D: Application of sealants
Answer: B: Enucleation and extraction of the associated tooth

‍

97. Management of Fibrous Dysplasia
What is a typical treatment for fibrous dysplasia affecting the jaw?
A: Observation and monitoring
B: Surgical recontouring for functional or aesthetic reasons
C: Tooth extraction
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Surgical recontouring for functional or aesthetic reasons

‍

98. Management of Oral Trauma
What is the first step in managing a patient with an avulsed tooth?
A: Immediate reimplantation if the tooth is intact and the patient is seen within one hour
B: Discard the tooth
C: Perform root canal therapy
D: Apply fluoride varnish
Answer: A: Immediate reimplantation if the tooth is intact and the patient is seen within one hour

‍

99. Management of Oral Cancer
What is the primary treatment modality for oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A: Antibiotics
B: Surgical excision
C: Fluoride treatment
D: Tooth whitening
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

100. Management of Mandibular Fractures
What is the most common treatment for a non-displaced mandibular fracture?
A: No treatment necessary
B: Rigid fixation with plates and screws
C: Orthodontic treatment
D: Fluoride application
Answer: B: Rigid fixation with plates and screws

‍101. Extraction Tools
Which tool is commonly used to luxate a tooth before extraction?
A: Elevator
B: Curette
C: Scaler
D: Mirror
Answer: A: Elevator

‍

102. Extraction Techniques
What is the primary purpose of using forceps in tooth extraction?
A: To measure pocket depth
B: To grasp and remove the tooth
C: To scale teeth
D: To polish teeth
Answer: B: To grasp and remove the tooth

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103. Types of Elevators
Which elevator is specifically designed for the removal of broken root tips?
A: Cryer elevator
B: Straight elevator
C: Periosteal elevator
D: Luxator
Answer: A: Cryer elevator

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104. Forceps Identification
What is the main characteristic of the No. 150 forceps?
A: Used for extracting mandibular molars
B: Used for extracting maxillary incisors and premolars
C: Used for extracting mandibular premolars
D: Used for extracting deciduous teeth
Answer: B: Used for extracting maxillary incisors and premolars

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105. Surgical Instruments
Which instrument is used to reflect and retract the gingival tissue?
A: Periosteal elevator
B: Dental mirror
C: Forceps
D: Scaler
Answer: A: Periosteal elevator

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106. Extraction Techniques for Molars
What is a common technique for extracting mandibular molars using forceps?
A: Rotational movement
B: Buccal and lingual pressure
C: Vertical lifting
D: Incisal edge grasping
Answer: B: Buccal and lingual pressure

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107. Luxators vs. Elevators
What is the primary difference between a luxator and an elevator?
A: Luxators are used for scaling
B: Luxators are thinner and used for cutting periodontal ligaments
C: Elevators are used for polishing
D: Elevators are used for probing
Answer: B: Luxators are thinner and used for cutting periodontal ligaments

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108. Specialized Forceps
Which forceps are typically used for extracting maxillary molars?
A: No. 88L and 88R forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 53 forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 88L and 88R forceps

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109. Root Tip Removal
Which instrument is best suited for the removal of small root fragments?
A: Root tip pick
B: Extraction forceps
C: Curette
D: Scaler
Answer: A: Root tip pick

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110. Maxillary Canine Extraction
Which forceps are most appropriate for extracting a maxillary canine?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 88L forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 150 forceps

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111. Handling Elevators
How should a straight elevator be used during tooth extraction?
A: To push the tooth out vertically
B: To rotate the tooth
C: To luxate the tooth by applying leverage against the alveolar bone
D: To reflect gingival tissue
Answer: C: To luxate the tooth by applying leverage against the alveolar bone

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112. Mandibular Premolar Extraction
Which forceps are ideal for extracting mandibular premolars?
A: No. 151 forceps
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 88R forceps
D: No. 210 forceps
Answer: A: No. 151 forceps

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113. Elevators for Maxillary Teeth
Which elevator is most commonly used for maxillary teeth extractions?
A: Cryer elevator
B: Potts elevator
C: Straight elevator
D: Warwick James elevator
Answer: D: Warwick James elevator

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114. Extraction Technique for Incisors
What technique is commonly used to extract maxillary incisors with forceps?
A: Rotational movement
B: Buccal and lingual pressure
C: Vertical pulling
D: Apical pressure
Answer: A: Rotational movement

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115. Curette Use in Extractions
What is the purpose of using a curette after tooth extraction?
A: To polish the tooth
B: To remove debris and granulation tissue from the socket
C: To measure the depth of pockets
D: To luxate the tooth
Answer: B: To remove debris and granulation tissue from the socket

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116. Specialized Forceps for Pediatric Extractions
Which forceps are designed for extracting deciduous teeth?
A: No. 150S forceps
B: No. 151S forceps
C: No. 74 forceps
D: No. 88R forceps
Answer: B: No. 151S forceps

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117. Instrumentation for Surgical Extractions
Which instrument is typically used to section a tooth during a surgical extraction?
A: Scaler
B: Bone chisel
C: High-speed handpiece with a bur
D: Dental mirror
Answer: C: High-speed handpiece with a bur

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118. Application of Forceps for Molars
How should forceps be positioned when extracting mandibular molars?
A: Parallel to the occlusal plane
B: Perpendicular to the occlusal plane
C: Vertical to the occlusal plane
D: At a 45-degree angle to the occlusal plane
Answer: A: Parallel to the occlusal plane

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119. Periosteal Elevator Use
What is the main purpose of using a periosteal elevator during an extraction?
A: To remove tooth decay
B: To reflect and retract the gingival tissue
C: To luxate the tooth
D: To polish the tooth
Answer: B: To reflect and retract the gingival tissue

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120. Extraction of Maxillary First Premolar
Which forceps are best suited for extracting a maxillary first premolar?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 88L forceps
D: No. 53 forceps
Answer: A: No. 150 forceps

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121. Luxator Use in Extractions
How is a luxator used differently from a traditional elevator in extractions?
A: Used for rotational force
B: Used for cutting the periodontal ligament
C: Used for polishing teeth
D: Used for scaling teeth
Answer: B: Used for cutting the periodontal ligament

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122. Mandibular Molar Extraction Tools
Which forceps are typically used for extracting mandibular molars?
A: No. 87 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 210 forceps
D: No. 16 forceps (Cowhorn forceps)
Answer: D: No. 16 forceps (Cowhorn forceps)

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123. Use of Bone Rongeurs
What is the primary use of bone rongeurs in oral surgery?
A: To polish teeth
B: To trim and remove bone
C: To extract teeth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: B: To trim and remove bone

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124. Extraction Technique for Third Molars
What is a common technique used for extracting impacted third molars?
A: Simple forceps extraction
B: Surgical removal with sectioning and elevation
C: Scaling and root planing
D: Applying fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical removal with sectioning and elevation

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125. Specialized Elevators for Root Fragments
Which elevator is designed for removing root fragments?
A: Cryer elevator
B: Periosteal elevator
C: Luxator
D: Potts elevator
Answer: A: Cryer elevator

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126. Extraction of Maxillary Second Molar
Which forceps are most appropriate for extracting a maxillary second molar?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 53 forceps
D: No. 88L forceps
Answer: D: No. 88L forceps

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127. Bone File Use
What is the purpose of a bone file in dental surgery?
A: To extract teeth
B: To smooth and refine bone edges
C: To measure pocket depth
D: To scale teeth
Answer: B: To smooth and refine bone edges

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128. Technique for Extracting Mandibular Premolars
Which forceps are ideal for extracting mandibular premolars?
A: No. 151 forceps
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 53 forceps
D: No. 88R forceps
Answer: A: No. 151 forceps

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129. Use of Periotomes
What is the primary use of periotomes in extractions?
A: To scale teeth
B: To cut periodontal ligaments for atraumatic extraction
C: To polish teeth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: B: To cut periodontal ligaments for atraumatic extraction

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130. Extraction of Maxillary Canine
Which forceps are best suited for extracting a maxillary canine?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 88R forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 150 forceps

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131. Use of Hemostats in Oral Surgery
What is the primary function of hemostats in oral surgery?
A: To extract teeth
B: To control bleeding by clamping blood vessels
C: To measure pocket depth
D: To polish teeth
Answer: B: To control bleeding by clamping blood vessels

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132. Mandibular Incisor Extraction
Which forceps are typically used for extracting mandibular incisors?
A: No. 74 forceps (English pattern forceps)
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 151 forceps
D: No. 88L forceps
Answer: A: No. 74 forceps (English pattern forceps)

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133. Extraction Techniques for Maxillary Molars
Which forceps are most appropriate for extracting maxillary molars?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 88L and 88R forceps
D: No. 53 forceps
Answer: C: No. 88L and 88R forceps

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134. Use of Chisels in Oral Surgery
What is the purpose of using chisels in oral surgery?
A: To polish teeth
B: To remove or reshape bone
C: To scale teeth
D: To extract teeth
Answer: B: To remove or reshape bone

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135. Techniques for Extracting Mandibular Third Molars
What is a common technique for extracting impacted mandibular third molars?
A: Simple forceps extraction
B: Surgical removal with sectioning and elevation
C: Scaling and root planing
D: Applying fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical removal with sectioning and elevation

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136. Root Tip Removal
Which instrument is best suited for the removal of small root fragments?
A: Root tip pick
B: Extraction forceps
C: Curette
D: Scaler
Answer: A: Root tip pick

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137. Extraction of Mandibular Canine
Which forceps are best suited for extracting a mandibular canine?
A: No. 151 forceps
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 74 forceps
D: No. 88L forceps
Answer: A: No. 151 forceps

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138. Use of Mallet and Chisel
What is the primary use of a mallet and chisel in oral surgery?
A: To extract teeth
B: To section teeth or remove bone
C: To measure pocket depth
D: To scale teeth
Answer: B: To section teeth or remove bone

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139. Extraction of Maxillary Lateral Incisor
Which forceps are most appropriate for extracting a maxillary lateral incisor?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 88L forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 150 forceps

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140. Use of Scalpel in Oral Surgery
What is the primary use of a scalpel in oral surgery?
A: To extract teeth
B: To make precise incisions in soft tissue
C: To measure pocket depth
D: To polish teeth
Answer: B: To make precise incisions in soft tissue

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141. Extraction of Mandibular First Molar
Which forceps are best suited for extracting a mandibular first molar?
A: No. 16 forceps (Cowhorn forceps)
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 151 forceps
D: No. 88R forceps
Answer: A: No. 16 forceps (Cowhorn forceps)

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142. Use of Bone Rongeurs
What is the primary use of bone rongeurs in oral surgery?
A: To polish teeth
B: To trim and remove bone
C: To extract teeth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: B: To trim and remove bone

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143. Extraction of Maxillary First Molar
Which forceps are best suited for extracting a maxillary first molar?
A: No. 88L forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 150 forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 88L forceps

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144. Use of Hemostats
What is the primary function of hemostats in oral surgery?
A: To extract teeth
B: To control bleeding by clamping blood vessels
C: To measure pocket depth
D: To polish teeth
Answer: B: To control bleeding by clamping blood vessels

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145. Extraction of Mandibular Second Premolar
Which forceps are best suited for extracting a mandibular second premolar?
A: No. 151 forceps
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 88R forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 151 forceps

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146. Use of Periosteal Elevator
What is the primary purpose of a periosteal elevator in oral surgery?
A: To extract teeth
B: To reflect and retract gingival tissue
C: To scale teeth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: B: To reflect and retract gingival tissue

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147. Extraction of Maxillary Central Incisor
Which forceps are most appropriate for extracting a maxillary central incisor?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 151 forceps
C: No. 88L forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 150 forceps

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148. Use of Root Tip Elevator
What is the primary use of a root tip elevator in oral surgery?
A: To scale teeth
B: To remove small root fragments
C: To polish teeth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: B: To remove small root fragments

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149. Extraction of Mandibular Lateral Incisor
Which forceps are best suited for extracting a mandibular lateral incisor?
A: No. 74 forceps (English pattern forceps)
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 151 forceps
D: No. 88L forceps
Answer: A: No. 74 forceps (English pattern forceps)

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150. Use of Surgical Curette
What is the primary purpose of a surgical curette in oral surgery?
A: To polish teeth
B: To remove granulation tissue and debris from the socket
C: To scale teeth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: B: To remove granulation tissue and debris from the socket

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151. Initial Step in Tooth Extraction
What is the first step in performing a tooth extraction?
A: Applying fluoride varnish
B: Reflecting the gingiva with a periosteal elevator
C: Using a scaler
D: Polishing the teeth
Answer: B: Reflecting the gingiva with a periosteal elevator

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152. Proper Use of Elevators
How should an elevator be used to luxate a tooth?
A: Apply apical pressure only
B: Use a lever motion to apply lateral pressure against the alveolar bone
C: Rotate it like a screwdriver
D: Pull it vertically
Answer: B: Use a lever motion to apply lateral pressure against the alveolar bone

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153. Forceps Application
How should forceps be applied to a tooth during extraction?
A: Grasp the crown of the tooth firmly and apply rotational forces
B: Use forceps to cut the gingival tissue
C: Apply light pressure without grasping the tooth
D: Only use forceps for maxillary teeth
Answer: A: Grasp the crown of the tooth firmly and apply rotational forces

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154. Luxation Technique
Which technique is often used to luxate teeth before extraction?
A: Pushing the tooth apically
B: Applying buccal and lingual pressure with an elevator
C: Only pulling the tooth vertically
D: Using a scaler to luxate the tooth
Answer: B: Applying buccal and lingual pressure with an elevator

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155. Elevator Usage in Multi-Rooted Teeth
How should an elevator be used when extracting multi-rooted teeth?
A: Luxate each root separately by placing the elevator between the roots and the socket
B: Only luxate one root
C: Ignore the roots and luxate the crown
D: Use the elevator for rotating the entire tooth
Answer: A: Luxate each root separately by placing the elevator between the roots and the socket

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156. Sectioning Teeth
When is it necessary to section a tooth during extraction?
A: For simple single-rooted teeth
B: For multi-rooted teeth that are difficult to extract as a whole
C: For cosmetic reasons
D: For routine prophylaxis
Answer: B: For multi-rooted teeth that are difficult to extract as a whole

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157. Proper Use of Forceps for Mandibular Molars
What is the correct technique for using forceps to extract mandibular molars?
A: Apply apical pressure only
B: Apply buccal-lingual pressure and slight rotational forces
C: Use only rotational forces
D: Apply forceps vertically without any lateral pressure
Answer: B: Apply buccal-lingual pressure and slight rotational forces

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158. Rotational Movements
For which type of teeth are rotational movements with forceps most appropriate?
A: Mandibular molars
B: Maxillary incisors
C: Multi-rooted teeth
D: Deciduous teeth
Answer: B: Maxillary incisors

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159. Extraction of Impacted Teeth
What is a common technique for extracting impacted teeth?
A: Simple forceps extraction
B: Surgical removal, which may include sectioning the tooth
C: Polishing the crown
D: Using a scaler to extract the tooth
Answer: B: Surgical removal, which may include sectioning the tooth

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160. Post-Extraction Socket Care
What is an important step in socket care after tooth extraction?
A: Leaving debris in the socket
B: Curettage to remove any remaining granulation tissue
C: Applying fluoride varnish
D: Ignoring the socket
Answer: B: Curettage to remove any remaining granulation tissue

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161. Vertical Traction Technique
In which situation is vertical traction used during extraction?
A: When extracting mandibular molars
B: For maxillary incisors
C: When removing deciduous teeth
D: When extracting deeply impacted teeth
Answer: D: When extracting deeply impacted teeth

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162. Pre-Extraction Assessment
What is an essential part of the pre-extraction assessment?
A: Determining the color of the tooth
B: Evaluating the tooth's mobility and surrounding bone structure with radiographs
C: Polishing the tooth
D: Checking for enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Evaluating the tooth's mobility and surrounding bone structure with radiographs

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163. Apical Pressure Technique
For which teeth is applying apical pressure with forceps most effective?
A: Mandibular molars
B: Maxillary molars
C: Single-rooted teeth such as incisors and canines
D: Multi-rooted teeth
Answer: C: Single-rooted teeth such as incisors and canines

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164. Removing Broken Root Tips
What technique is often used to remove broken root tips?
A: Using a scaler
B: Applying vertical pressure with forceps
C: Using a root tip pick or elevator to carefully retrieve the fragment
D: Polishing the root tip
Answer: C: Using a root tip pick or elevator to carefully retrieve the fragment

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165. Forceps Position for Maxillary Premolars
How should forceps be positioned for extracting maxillary premolars?
A: Perpendicular to the occlusal plane
B: Parallel to the buccal surface
C: Parallel to the occlusal plane with slight rotational force
D: Vertical to the occlusal plane
Answer: C: Parallel to the occlusal plane with slight rotational force

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166. Luxating Deciduous Teeth
What is a key consideration when luxating deciduous teeth?
A: Using excessive force
B: Minimal force to avoid damaging the underlying permanent tooth
C: Ignoring the roots
D: Only using rotational forces
Answer: B: Minimal force to avoid damaging the underlying permanent tooth

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167. Sectioning Multi-Rooted Teeth
What tool is typically used to section multi-rooted teeth during surgical extraction?
A: Dental mirror
B: High-speed handpiece with a bur
C: Curette
D: Scaler
Answer: B: High-speed handpiece with a bur

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168. Post-Extraction Hemostasis
What is a common method for achieving hemostasis after a tooth extraction?
A: Applying fluoride varnish
B: Applying a gauze pad with firm pressure
C: Polishing the socket
D: Using a scaler in the socket
Answer: B: Applying a gauze pad with firm pressure

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169. Buccal-Lingual Pressure Technique
In which extraction scenario is buccal-lingual pressure most commonly applied?
A: Extracting maxillary incisors
B: Extracting mandibular molars
C: Extracting single-rooted teeth
D: Extracting deciduous teeth
Answer: B: Extracting mandibular molars

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170. Use of Periotomes in Extractions
How are periotomes used in atraumatic extractions?
A: For polishing teeth
B: To cut the periodontal ligament before using forceps
C: For scaling teeth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: B: To cut the periodontal ligament before using forceps

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171. Common Indication for Third Molar Extraction
What is a common indication for the extraction of third molars?
A: Presence of dental caries
B: Orthodontic reasons such as preventing crowding
C: Aesthetic improvement
D: Routine cleaning
Answer: B: Orthodontic reasons such as preventing crowding

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172. Classification of Impaction
How is a mesioangular impaction of a third molar defined?
A: The tooth is tilted toward the adjacent tooth
B: The tooth is tilted away from the adjacent tooth
C: The tooth is positioned horizontally
D: The tooth is positioned vertically
Answer: A: The tooth is tilted toward the adjacent tooth

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173. Common Instrument for Sectioning Teeth
Which instrument is commonly used to section third molars during surgical extraction?
A: High-speed handpiece with a bur
B: Elevator
C: Forceps
D: Scaler
Answer: A: High-speed handpiece with a bur

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174. Preferred Technique for Impacted Third Molars
What is the preferred technique for removing an impacted third molar?
A: Simple forceps extraction
B: Surgical extraction with sectioning and elevation
C: Application of fluoride varnish
D: Using a scaler
Answer: B: Surgical extraction with sectioning and elevation

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175. Indications for Third Molar Extraction
Which condition is an indication for third molar extraction?
A: Minor tooth discoloration
B: Pericoronitis
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Routine prophylaxis
Answer: B: Pericoronitis

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176. Types of Third Molar Impaction
Which type of impaction is most likely to cause pericoronitis?
A: Horizontal impaction
B: Vertical impaction
C: Mesioangular impaction
D: Distoangular impaction
Answer: C: Mesioangular impaction

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177. Use of Elevators in Third Molar Extractions
How should a straight elevator be used when extracting a third molar?
A: To luxate the tooth by applying leverage against the alveolar bone
B: To cut the tooth
C: To polish the tooth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: A: To luxate the tooth by applying leverage against the alveolar bone

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178. Common Postoperative Complication
What is a common postoperative complication following third molar extraction?
A: Hyperdontia
B: Dry socket (alveolar osteitis)
C: Tooth discoloration
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Dry socket (alveolar osteitis)

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179. Patient Positioning for Extraction
What is the recommended patient position for extracting mandibular third molars?
A: Supine with head slightly elevated
B: Sitting upright
C: Prone
D: Standing
Answer: A: Supine with head slightly elevated

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180. Forceps for Mandibular Third Molars
Which forceps are typically used for extracting mandibular third molars?
A: No. 16 forceps (Cowhorn forceps)
B: No. 150 forceps
C: No. 151 forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: A: No. 16 forceps (Cowhorn forceps)

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181. Classification of Impaction
What is a distoangular impaction of a third molar?
A: The tooth is tilted toward the back of the mouth
B: The tooth is tilted forward
C: The tooth is positioned horizontally
D: The tooth is positioned vertically
Answer: A: The tooth is tilted toward the back of the mouth

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182. Common Instrument for Bone Removal
Which instrument is commonly used for bone removal during third molar extraction?
A: Bone rongeurs
B: Dental mirror
C: Scaler
D: Explorer
Answer: A: Bone rongeurs

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183. Use of Sutures in Third Molar Extractions
Why are sutures often used after third molar extraction?
A: To close the extraction site and promote healing
B: To polish the adjacent teeth
C: To measure the depth of the socket
D: To apply fluoride varnish
Answer: A: To close the extraction site and promote healing

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184. Risk of Nerve Injury
Which nerve is at risk during mandibular third molar extraction?
A: Inferior alveolar nerve
B: Lingual nerve
C: Buccal nerve
D: Facial nerve
Answer: A: Inferior alveolar nerve

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185. Use of Irrigation
What is the purpose of irrigation during third molar extraction?
A: To keep the surgical site cool and clear of debris
B: To apply fluoride varnish
C: To polish the tooth
D: To measure pocket depth
Answer: A: To keep the surgical site cool and clear of debris

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186. Technique for Maxillary Third Molars
What technique is commonly used for extracting maxillary third molars?
A: Buccal-lingual pressure with forceps and possible sectioning
B: Rotational movement only
C: Vertical pulling only
D: Applying apical pressure only
Answer: A: Buccal-lingual pressure with forceps and possible sectioning

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187. Common Pain Management Post-Extraction
What is commonly prescribed for pain management after third molar extraction?
A: Antibiotics only
B: Over-the-counter analgesics or prescription pain medication
C: Toothpaste for sensitivity
D: Fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Over-the-counter analgesics or prescription pain medication

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188. Instrument for Reflecting Gingiva
Which instrument is used to reflect the gingiva during third molar extraction?
A: Periosteal elevator
B: Dental mirror
C: Scaler
D: Explorer
Answer: A: Periosteal elevator

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189. Indications for Third Molar Extraction
What is an indication for the prophylactic extraction of third molars?
A: Tooth color change
B: To prevent potential future complications such as infection or cyst formation
C: Mild gingivitis
D: Routine prophylaxis
Answer: B: To prevent potential future complications such as infection or cyst formation

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190. Types of Third Molar Impaction
Which type of third molar impaction is most difficult to extract?
A: Vertical impaction
B: Horizontal impaction
C: Mesioangular impaction
D: Distoangular impaction
Answer: B: Horizontal impaction

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191. Use of Surgical Handpiece
When is a surgical handpiece typically used during third molar extraction?
A: For simple extractions
B: For sectioning teeth and removing bone
C: For scaling teeth
D: For applying fluoride varnish
Answer: B: For sectioning teeth and removing bone

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192. Postoperative Care Instructions
What is an important postoperative care instruction following third molar extraction?
A: Avoid rinsing the mouth for the first 24 hours
B: Brush vigorously over the extraction site
C: Eat hard and crunchy foods immediately
D: Ignore any swelling
Answer: A: Avoid rinsing the mouth for the first 24 hours

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193. Techniques for Impacted Third Molars
What technique is used to extract a horizontally impacted mandibular third molar?
A: Simple forceps extraction
B: Surgical sectioning and elevation
C: Applying fluoride varnish
D: Using a scaler
Answer: B: Surgical sectioning and elevation

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194. Use of Bone Chisels
What is the purpose of using a bone chisel in third molar extractions?
A: To polish teeth
B: To remove or reshape bone
C: To measure pocket depth
D: To scale teeth
Answer: B: To remove or reshape bone

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195. Complications of Third Molar Extraction
What is a potential complication of maxillary third molar extraction?
A: Sinus perforation
B: Hyperdontia
C: Enamel hypoplasia
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: A: Sinus perforation

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196. Use of Forceps for Maxillary Third Molars
Which forceps are typically used for extracting maxillary third molars?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 88L and 88R forceps
C: No. 151 forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: B: No. 88L and 88R forceps

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197. Instruments for Soft Tissue Management
Which instrument is used to incise soft tissue during third molar extraction?
A: Scalpel
B: Dental mirror
C: Scaler
D: Explorer
Answer: A: Scalpel

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198. Postoperative Complication Management
How is a dry socket (alveolar osteitis) typically managed?
A: Leaving the socket untreated
B: Placement of a medicated dressing in the socket
C: Applying fluoride varnish
D: Using a scaler
Answer: B: Placement of a medicated dressing in the socket

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199. Risk Factors for Third Molar Extraction
Which of the following is a risk factor for complications during third molar extraction?
A: Patient age over 25
B: Patient with good oral hygiene
C: Patient with minor gingivitis
D: Routine dental cleaning
Answer: A: Patient age over 25

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200. Use of Root Tip Picks
What is the primary use of root tip picks in third molar extractions?
A: To polish teeth
B: To remove small root fragments
C: To measure pocket depth
D: To scale teeth
Answer: B: To remove small root fragments

201. Management of Osteomyelitis in the Jaw
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for acute osteomyelitis of the jaw?
A: Immediate surgical debridement
B: High-dose intravenous antibiotics
C: Extraction of all teeth in the affected area
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: High-dose intravenous antibiotics

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202. Treatment of Ameloblastoma
What is the standard treatment for a large mandibular ameloblastoma?
A: Enucleation and curettage
B: Marginal resection with a safe margin of normal bone
C: Chemotherapy
D: Root canal therapy
Answer: B: Marginal resection with a safe margin of normal bone

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203. Management of Bisphosphonate-Related Osteonecrosis
What is the recommended approach to manage bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw?
A: Aggressive surgical debridement
B: Conservative management with antibiotics and oral rinses
C: Immediate extraction of all affected teeth
D: Increased bisphosphonate dosage
Answer: B: Conservative management with antibiotics and oral rinses

‍

204. Complex Zygomatic Fracture Management
Which surgical approach is commonly used for complex zygomatic fractures?
A: Intraoral approach only
B: Gillies temporal approach
C: Submental approach
D: Midline mandibular approach
Answer: B: Gillies temporal approach

‍

205. Diagnosis of Osteoradionecrosis
What imaging modality is most useful in diagnosing osteoradionecrosis of the jaw?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)
C: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D: Periapical radiograph
Answer: B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)

‍

206. Management of Severe Maxillary Atrophy
Which technique is often used for dental implant placement in patients with severe maxillary atrophy?
A: Immediate loading
B: Zygomatic implants
C: Subperiosteal implants
D: Mini implants
Answer: B: Zygomatic implants

‍

207. Complications of Orbital Fracture Repair
What is a potential complication of repairing an orbital floor fracture?
A: Nerve injury
B: Sinus perforation
C: Diplopia
D: Dry socket
Answer: C: Diplopia

‍

208. Surgical Approach for Condylar Fractures
Which surgical approach is commonly used for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of mandibular condylar fractures?
A: Intraoral approach
B: Preauricular approach
C: Submental approach
D: Gillies approach
Answer: B: Preauricular approach

‍

209. Management of Antral Fistula
What is the recommended initial treatment for a chronic oroantral fistula?
A: Antibiotics only
B: Immediate surgical closure
C: Observation and follow-up
D: Sinus irrigation
Answer: B: Immediate surgical closure

‍

210. Indications for Total Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) Replacement
What is a common indication for total TMJ replacement?
A: Mild TMD
B: Severe ankylosis unresponsive to other treatments
C: Minor malocclusion
D: Gingivitis
Answer: B: Severe ankylosis unresponsive to other treatments

‍

211. Management of Cystic Lesions in the Jaw
What is the preferred treatment for a large keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KCOT)?
A: Enucleation and curettage
B: Marsupialization followed by enucleation
C: Simple observation
D: Root canal therapy
Answer: B: Marsupialization followed by enucleation

‍

212. Management of Severe Facial Trauma
Which imaging modality is most useful for assessing severe facial trauma?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)
C: Computed tomography (CT) scan
D: Periapical radiograph
Answer: C: Computed tomography (CT) scan

‍

213. Complications of Mandibular Distraction Osteogenesis
What is a potential complication of mandibular distraction osteogenesis?
A: Malocclusion
B: Infection at the distraction site
C: Increased enamel thickness
D: Dry socket
Answer: B: Infection at the distraction site

‍

214. Management of Temporomandibular Joint Dislocation
What is the initial treatment for acute TMJ dislocation?
A: Surgical reduction
B: Closed reduction with manual manipulation
C: Immediate orthognathic surgery
D: Antibiotics
Answer: B: Closed reduction with manual manipulation

‍

215. Indications for Segmental Mandibulectomy
What is a common indication for segmental mandibulectomy?
A: Minor occlusal adjustment
B: Extensive malignant tumor involving the mandible
C: Gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Extensive malignant tumor involving the mandible

‍

216. Management of Oral Submucous Fibrosis
What is a common treatment for oral submucous fibrosis?
A: Observation only
B: Surgical release of fibrous bands and steroid injections
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Antibiotics
Answer: B: Surgical release of fibrous bands and steroid injections

‍

217. Diagnosis of Jaw Lesions
Which imaging technique is most sensitive for detecting early changes in jaw lesions?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)
C: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D: Periapical radiograph
Answer: C: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

‍

218. Management of Orbital Hematoma
What is the immediate management for a post-surgical orbital hematoma?
A: Observation
B: Immediate surgical decompression
C: Application of ice packs
D: Antibiotics
Answer: B: Immediate surgical decompression

‍

219. Treatment of Condylar Hyperplasia
What is a common surgical treatment for condylar hyperplasia?
A: Orthodontic treatment alone
B: Condylectomy with orthognathic surgery
C: Simple extraction of adjacent teeth
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Condylectomy with orthognathic surgery

‍

220. Complications of Mandibular Reconstruction
What is a potential complication of mandibular reconstruction with a free flap?
A: Sinusitis
B: Flap necrosis
C: Increased tooth mobility
D: Gingival recession
Answer: B: Flap necrosis

‍

221. Management of Peri-Implantitis
What is the first-line treatment for peri-implantitis?
A: Immediate implant removal
B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy
C: Applying fluoride varnish
D: Using a scaler
Answer: B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy

‍

222. Surgical Approach for Coronoid Process Hyperplasia
What is the recommended surgical approach for coronoid process hyperplasia?
A: Intraoral coronoidectomy
B: Submental approach
C: Preauricular approach
D: Gillies approach
Answer: A: Intraoral coronoidectomy

‍

223. Complications of Maxillary Sinus Lift
What is a potential complication of a maxillary sinus lift procedure?
A: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
B: Sinus membrane perforation
C: Increased enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Sinus membrane perforation

‍

224. Management of Dentoalveolar Fractures
What is the initial management for dentoalveolar fractures involving multiple teeth?
A: Immediate surgical reduction and fixation
B: Observation
C: Root canal therapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: A: Immediate surgical reduction and fixation

‍

225. Indications for Le Fort III Osteotomy
What is a common indication for a Le Fort III osteotomy?
A: Minor occlusal adjustment
B: Severe craniofacial deformities
C: Gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Severe craniofacial deformities

‍

226. Diagnosis of Salivary Gland Tumors
What is the most accurate method for diagnosing salivary gland tumors?
A: Clinical examination alone
B: Fine needle aspiration biopsy
C: Panoramic radiograph
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Fine needle aspiration biopsy

‍

227. Management of Odontogenic Sinusitis
What is the first-line treatment for odontogenic sinusitis?
A: Root canal therapy
B: Extraction of the offending tooth and sinus drainage
C: Application of fluoride varnish
D: Simple observation
Answer: B: Extraction of the offending tooth and sinus drainage

‍

228. Management of Anterior Open Bite
What surgical procedure is commonly used to correct an anterior open bite?
A: Le Fort I osteotomy
B: Condylectomy
C: Mandibular setback
D: Segmental osteotomy
Answer: A: Le Fort I osteotomy

‍

229. Complications of Genioplasty
What is a potential complication of genioplasty?
A: Hyperplasia of the chin
B: Mental nerve injury
C: Enamel hypoplasia
D: Gingival overgrowth
Answer: B: Mental nerve injury

‍

230. Management of Impacted Canines
What is the preferred surgical approach for impacted maxillary canines?
A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction
B: Extraction of adjacent teeth
C: Immediate implant placement
D: Simple observation
Answer: A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction

‍

231. Treatment of Squamous Cell Carcinoma
What is the primary treatment for early-stage oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A: Radiation therapy
B: Surgical excision with clear margins
C: Chemotherapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical excision with clear margins

‍

232. Management of Maxillary Tori
What is a common indication for the surgical removal of maxillary tori?
A: Routine prophylaxis
B: Interference with denture fit or ulceration
C: Mild tooth discoloration
D: Simple observation
Answer: B: Interference with denture fit or ulceration

‍

233. Management of Dentigerous Cysts
What is the preferred treatment for a dentigerous cyst?
A: Enucleation and removal of the associated tooth
B: Root canal therapy
C: Application of fluoride varnish
D: Simple observation
Answer: A: Enucleation and removal of the associated tooth

‍

234. Indications for Distraction Osteogenesis
In which scenario is distraction osteogenesis typically indicated?
A: Minor orthodontic adjustments
B: Severe mandibular hypoplasia
C: Simple tooth extraction
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Severe mandibular hypoplasia

‍

235. Complications of Orthognathic Surgery
What is a potential complication following orthognathic surgery?
A: Increased tooth mobility
B: Facial nerve injury
C: Hyperdontia
D: Gingival recession
Answer: B: Facial nerve injury

‍

236. Management of Oral Leukoplakia
What is the initial management for oral leukoplakia?
A: Immediate surgical excision
B: Biopsy to rule out dysplasia or malignancy
C: Application of fluoride varnish
D: Routine prophylaxis
Answer: B: Biopsy to rule out dysplasia or malignancy

‍

237. Use of Cone Beam CT in Jaw Surgery
What is the primary advantage of using cone beam computed tomography (CBCT) in jaw surgery?
A: Lower radiation dose compared to traditional radiographs
B: Three-dimensional visualization of bone structures
C: Improved tooth polishing
D: Enhanced fluoride application
Answer: B: Three-dimensional visualization of bone structures

‍

238. Management of Facial Cellulitis
What is the immediate management for a patient presenting with facial cellulitis due to a dental abscess?
A: Prescribe antibiotics and monitor
B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignore the infection
Answer: B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy

‍

239. Indications for Hemimandibulectomy
What is a common indication for hemimandibulectomy?
A: Minor occlusal adjustment
B: Extensive malignant tumor involving one side of the mandible
C: Gingivitis
D: Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: B: Extensive malignant tumor involving one side of the mandible

‍

240. Management of Osteonecrosis of the Jaw
What is the preferred treatment for medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ)?
A: Aggressive surgical debridement
B: Conservative management with antibiotics and oral rinses
C: Immediate extraction of all affected teeth
D: Increased bisphosphonate dosage
Answer: B: Conservative management with antibiotics and oral rinses

‍

241. Treatment of Neurofibroma of the Oral Cavity
What is the primary treatment for a neurofibroma in the oral cavity?
A: Chemotherapy
B: Surgical excision
C: Radiation therapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

242. Management of Oral Mucosal Melanoma
What is the recommended treatment for oral mucosal melanoma?
A: Radiation therapy alone
B: Surgical excision with clear margins
C: Chemotherapy
D: Simple observation
Answer: B: Surgical excision with clear margins

‍

243. Diagnosis of Traumatic Bone Cysts
What is the best imaging modality for diagnosing a traumatic bone cyst?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)
C: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D: Periapical radiograph
Answer: A: Panoramic radiograph

‍

244. Complications of Le Fort I Osteotomy
What is a potential complication of a Le Fort I osteotomy?
A: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
B: Maxillary sinusitis
C: Increased enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Maxillary sinusitis

‍

245. Management of Complex Mandibular Fractures
Which surgical technique is often used to stabilize complex mandibular fractures?
A: Closed reduction with intermaxillary fixation (IMF)
B: Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with plates and screws
C: Simple observation
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with plates and screws

‍

246. Diagnosis of Odontogenic Tumors
Which diagnostic tool is most effective for identifying odontogenic tumors?
A: Clinical examination alone
B: Biopsy and histopathological examination
C: Panoramic radiograph
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Biopsy and histopathological examination

‍

247. Management of Lingual Nerve Injury
What is the initial management for a patient with lingual nerve injury following a third molar extraction?
A: Immediate nerve repair surgery
B: Observation and follow-up for spontaneous recovery
C: Root canal therapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Observation and follow-up for spontaneous recovery

‍

248. Management of Orofacial Clefts
What is the preferred timing for primary repair of an orofacial cleft?
A: At birth
B: Between 3 to 6 months of age
C: During teenage years
D: Adulthood
Answer: B: Between 3 to 6 months of age

‍

249. Management of Facial Nerve Palsy Post-Surgery
What is a common initial treatment for facial nerve palsy following oral and maxillofacial surgery?
A: Immediate surgery
B: Corticosteroids and physical therapy
C: Simple observation
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Corticosteroids and physical therapy

‍

250. Diagnosis of Oral Lichen Planus
What is the definitive diagnostic method for oral lichen planus?
A: Clinical examination alone
B: Biopsy and histopathological examination
C: Panoramic radiograph
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Biopsy and histopathological examination

‍

251. Complications of Submandibular Gland Excision
What is a potential complication of submandibular gland excision?
A: Hypoglossal nerve injury
B: Increased salivary flow
C: Hyperplasia of the gland
D: Gingival overgrowth
Answer: A: Hypoglossal nerve injury

‍

252. Management of Hyperparathyroidism-Related Jaw Lesions
What is the preferred treatment for jaw lesions caused by hyperparathyroidism?
A: Root canal therapy
B: Surgical resection after controlling hyperparathyroidism
C: Application of fluoride varnish
D: Simple observation
Answer: B: Surgical resection after controlling hyperparathyroidism

‍

253. Management of Oral Verrucous Carcinoma
What is the primary treatment for oral verrucous carcinoma?
A: Radiation therapy
B: Surgical excision with clear margins
C: Chemotherapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical excision with clear margins

‍

254. Management of Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis
What is a common treatment for recurrent aphthous stomatitis?
A: Antibiotics
B: Topical corticosteroids
C: Routine prophylaxis
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Topical corticosteroids

‍

255. Management of Mandibular Condylar Hyperplasia
What is the recommended surgical treatment for mandibular condylar hyperplasia?
A: Orthodontic treatment alone
B: Condylectomy
C: Simple extraction of adjacent teeth
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Condylectomy

‍

256. Diagnosis of Ameloblastic Fibroma
What is the definitive diagnostic method for ameloblastic fibroma?
A: Clinical examination alone
B: Biopsy and histopathological examination
C: Panoramic radiograph
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Biopsy and histopathological examination

‍

257. Management of Osteochondroma of the Jaw
What is the primary treatment for osteochondroma of the jaw?
A: Chemotherapy
B: Surgical resection
C: Radiation therapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical resection

‍

258. Management of Hyperplastic Gingival Lesions
What is the initial treatment for a hyperplastic gingival lesion?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision and biopsy
C: Root canal therapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical excision and biopsy

‍

259. Complications of Mandibular Setback Surgery
What is a potential complication of mandibular setback surgery?
A: Malocclusion
B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
C: Increased enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury

‍

260. Diagnosis of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing an odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)
C: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D: Periapical radiograph
Answer: B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)

‍

261. Management of Keratocystic Odontogenic Tumor (KCOT)
What is the preferred treatment for a large keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KCOT)?
A: Enucleation and curettage
B: Marsupialization followed by enucleation
C: Simple observation
D: Root canal therapy
Answer: B: Marsupialization followed by enucleation

‍

262. Management of Maxillary Sinus Perforation
What is the immediate management of a maxillary sinus perforation during tooth extraction?
A: Observation
B: Surgical closure and sinus precautions
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Ignore the condition
Answer: B: Surgical closure and sinus precautions

‍

263. Complications of Zygomatic Implant Placement
What is a potential complication of zygomatic implant placement?
A: Sinusitis
B: Increased tooth mobility
C: Gingival recession
D: Tooth discoloration
Answer: A: Sinusitis

‍

264. Management of Mandibular Distraction Osteogenesis
What is a common complication of mandibular distraction osteogenesis?
A: Malocclusion
B: Infection at the distraction site
C: Increased enamel thickness
D: Dry socket
Answer: B: Infection at the distraction site

‍

265. Management of Severe Periodontal Disease in Orthognathic Surgery Patients
How should severe periodontal disease be managed in patients undergoing orthognathic surgery?
A: Ignore periodontal status
B: Stabilize periodontal health before and during orthognathic surgery
C: Use only fixed appliances
D: Apply more force to move teeth faster
Answer: B: Stabilize periodontal health before and during orthognathic surgery

‍

266. Management of Temporomandibular Joint Ankylosis
What is a typical treatment for temporomandibular joint ankylosis?
A: Observation
B: Surgical intervention to release the joint
C: Tooth extraction
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: B: Surgical intervention to release the joint

‍

267. Management of Oral Verrucous Carcinoma
What is the primary treatment for oral verrucous carcinoma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

268. Use of Cone Beam CT in Diagnosing Impacted Teeth
How does CBCT improve the diagnosis and management of impacted teeth?
A: It does not provide any additional benefit
B: Provides three-dimensional visualization of the impacted tooth's position relative to adjacent structures
C: It only shows soft tissue structures
D: CBCT increases radiation exposure without diagnostic benefits
Answer: B: Provides three-dimensional visualization of the impacted tooth's position relative to adjacent structures

‍

269. Management of Severe Open Bite
What is a potential treatment for severe open bite in adults?
A: Headgear
B: Orthognathic surgery to reposition the jaws
C: Palatal expander
D: Space maintainer
Answer: B: Orthognathic surgery to reposition the jaws

‍

270. Management of Root Resorption in Orthodontic Patients
How should orthodontic treatment be adjusted in patients experiencing significant root resorption?
A: Increase the force applied to the teeth
B: Halt orthodontic treatment immediately
C: Reduce the force and duration of orthodontic treatment, and monitor closely with radiographs
D: Use heavier archwires
Answer: C: Reduce the force and duration of orthodontic treatment, and monitor closely with radiographs

‍

271. Management of Maxillary Canine Impaction
What is the preferred surgical approach for impacted maxillary canines?
A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction
B: Extraction of adjacent teeth
C: Immediate implant placement
D: Simple observation
Answer: A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction

‍

272. Management of Oral Lichen Planus
What is the common treatment for symptomatic oral lichen planus?
A: Antibiotics
B: Topical corticosteroids
C: Routine prophylaxis
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Topical corticosteroids

‍

273. Complications of Mandibular Reconstruction with Free Flap
What is a potential complication of mandibular reconstruction with a free flap?
A: Sinusitis
B: Flap necrosis
C: Increased tooth mobility
D: Gingival recession
Answer: B: Flap necrosis

‍

274. Management of Odontogenic Infections
What is a key principle in managing odontogenic infections?
A: Ignore the infection
B: Prompt surgical drainage and appropriate antibiotic therapy
C: Only prescribe painkillers
D: Increase fluoride application
Answer: B: Prompt surgical drainage and appropriate antibiotic therapy

‍

275. Management of Chronic Sialadenitis
What is the preferred treatment for chronic sialadenitis of the submandibular gland?
A: Observation
B: Submandibular gland excision
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Routine dental cleaning
Answer: B: Submandibular gland excision

‍

276. Management of Ludwig’s Angina
What is the immediate treatment for Ludwig’s angina?
A: Observation
B: Airway management, surgical drainage, and antibiotics
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Airway management, surgical drainage, and antibiotics

‍

277.Management of Infected Dental Implants
What is the first step in managing an infected dental implant?
A: Immediate removal of the implant
B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignore the infection
Answer: B: Conservative debridement and antibiotic therapy

‍

278. Complications of Mandibular Fracture Repair
What is a potential complication of mandibular fracture repair?
A: Tooth discoloration
B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
C: Increase in tooth size
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury

‍

279. Management of Impacted Canines
What is the preferred surgical approach for impacted maxillary canines?
A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction
B: Extraction of adjacent teeth
C: Immediate implant placement
D: Simple observation
Answer: A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction

‍

280. Management of Odontogenic Keratocyst
What is the typical treatment for an odontogenic keratocyst?
A: Observation
B: Enucleation and curettage
C: Tooth whitening
D: Scaling and root planing
Answer: B: Enucleation and curettage

‍

281. Management of Oral Verrucous Carcinoma
What is the primary treatment for oral verrucous carcinoma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

282. Management of Oral Mucosal Melanoma
What is the recommended treatment for oral mucosal melanoma?
A: Radiation therapy alone
B: Surgical excision with clear margins
C: Chemotherapy
D: Simple observation
Answer: B: Surgical excision with clear margins

‍

283. Diagnosis of Salivary Gland Tumors
What is the most accurate method for diagnosing salivary gland tumors?
A: Clinical examination alone
B: Fine needle aspiration biopsy
C: Panoramic radiograph
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Fine needle aspiration biopsy

‍

284. Management of Odontogenic Sinusitis
What is the first-line treatment for odontogenic sinusitis?
A: Root canal therapy
B: Extraction of the offending tooth and sinus drainage
C: Application of fluoride varnish
D: Simple observation
Answer: B: Extraction of the offending tooth and sinus drainage

‍

285. Management of Maxillary Tori
What is a common indication for the surgical removal of maxillary tori?
A: Routine prophylaxis
B: Interference with denture fit or ulceration
C: Mild tooth discoloration
D: Simple observation
Answer: B: Interference with denture fit or ulceration

‍

286. Management of Dentigerous Cysts
What is the preferred treatment for a dentigerous cyst?
A: Enucleation and removal of the associated tooth
B: Root canal therapy
C: Application of fluoride varnish
D: Simple observation
Answer: A: Enucleation and removal of the associated tooth

‍

287. Management of Orofacial Clefts
What is the preferred timing for primary repair of an orofacial cleft?
A: At birth
B: Between 3 to 6 months of age
C: During teenage years
D: Adulthood
Answer: B: Between 3 to 6 months of age

‍

288. Diagnosis of Traumatic Bone Cysts
What is the best imaging modality for diagnosing a traumatic bone cyst?
A: Panoramic radiograph
B: Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)
C: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D: Periapical radiograph
Answer: A: Panoramic radiograph

‍

289. Management of Maxillary Third Molars
Which forceps are suitable for extracting maxillary third molars?
A: No. 150 forceps
B: No. 88L and 88R forceps
C: No. 151 forceps
D: No. 74 forceps
Answer: B: No. 88L and 88R forceps

‍

290. Management of Facial Cellulitis
What is the immediate management for a patient presenting with facial cellulitis due to a dental abscess?
A: Prescribe antibiotics and monitor
B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy
C: Tooth whitening
D: Ignore the infection
Answer: B: Immediate surgical drainage and antibiotic therapy

‍

291. Complications of Submandibular Gland Excision
What is a potential complication of submandibular gland excision?
A: Hypoglossal nerve injury
B: Increased salivary flow
C: Hyperplasia of the gland
D: Gingival overgrowth
Answer: A: Hypoglossal nerve injury

‍

292. Management of Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis
What is a common treatment for recurrent aphthous stomatitis?
A: Antibiotics
B: Topical corticosteroids
C: Routine prophylaxis
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Topical corticosteroids

‍

293. Complications of Mandibular Setback Surgery
What is a potential complication of mandibular setback surgery?
A: Malocclusion
B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
C: Increased enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Inferior alveolar nerve injury

‍

294. Complications of Maxillary Sinus Lift
What is a potential complication of a maxillary sinus lift procedure?
A: Inferior alveolar nerve injury
B: Sinus membrane perforation
C: Increased enamel thickness
D: Formation of dental tori
Answer: B: Sinus membrane perforation

‍

295. Management of Oral Submucous Fibrosis
What is a common treatment for oral submucous fibrosis?
A: Observation only
B: Surgical release of fibrous bands and steroid injections
C: Fluoride varnish application
D: Antibiotics
Answer: B: Surgical release of fibrous bands and steroid injections

‍

296. Management of Maxillary Canine Impaction
What is the preferred surgical approach for impacted maxillary canines?
A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction
B: Extraction of adjacent teeth
C: Immediate implant placement
D: Simple observation
Answer: A: Closed surgical exposure and orthodontic traction

‍

297. Management of Oral Verrucous Carcinoma
What is the primary treatment for oral verrucous carcinoma?
A: Observation
B: Surgical excision
C: Tooth whitening
D: Fluoride varnish application
Answer: B: Surgical excision

‍

298. Management of Dentoalveolar Fractures
What is the initial management for dentoalveolar fractures involving multiple teeth?
A: Immediate surgical reduction and fixation
B: Observation
C: Root canal therapy
D: Application of fluoride varnish
Answer: A: Immediate surgical reduction and fixation

‍

299. Management of Maxillary Atrophy
Which technique is often used for dental implant placement in patients with severe maxillary atrophy?
A: Immediate loading
B: Zygomatic implants
C: Subperiosteal implants
D: Mini implants
Answer: B: Zygomatic implants

‍

300. Management of Severe Open Bite
What is a potential treatment for severe open bite in adults?
A: Headgear
B: Orthognathic surgery to reposition the jaws
C: Palatal expander
D: Space maintainer
Answer: B: Orthognathic surgery to reposition the jaws